User talk:Uaxuctum~enwikibooks

G'day, thanks heaps for your edits to the quechua book. You seem to understand either quechua or phonetics (or both) far better than i. I would just like to know what happened to the bit on dipthongs, and how the table you put in relates to the oficial spelling changes approved by the Peruvian government in 1985 (which legilates 5 written vowels)? Another note, i started this book because i thought it was in desperate need of being written, not because i knew about anything on the subject. My main source (other than the wikipedia article) is a the lonley planet phrasebook, so please excuse my stupid questions, and bad phrasing of ideas. The bellman 12:07, 17 Dec 2004 (UTC)


 * I haven't entered the Wikibooks site for ages, so sorry for being so late to answer. Quechua (unlike English) has no phonemic diphthongs (the phonetic diphthongs are phonemically merely semivocalic consonants juxtaposed to simple vowels; e.g., /aw/ = vowel /a/ followed by consontant /w/, while the English diphthong /aU/ as in "how" is a single, undecomposable phoneme). That's why they do not belong in a description of Quechua's phonemes (they would belong in a description of Quechua's phonotactics, i.e. syllable structure and such, which would also include the description of consonant clusters). As for the former practice of spelling with five vowels, that's due to the misinterpretation that Spanish speakers tend to make about Quechua's vowel phonology. Quechua has only three vowel phonemes, while Spanish has five. As in other languages with only 3 vowels (such as Arabic and Inuktitut), these feature a wide range of allophonic variation, meaning that phonetically one can actually hear sounds similar to [e] and [o] in Quechua, but that phonemically these are merely contextual and predictable realizations of /i/ and /u/ (basically, when they are next to an uvular consonant such as /q/). But to a Spanish speaker, used to thinking of the sounds [i] and [e] as belonging to what in Spanish are completely different phonemes /i/ and /e/, it is frequently difficult to grasp the idea that in some other language they may be considered as mere variants of "the same sound" (as they are for a native Quechua speaker). That is why in former orthographies devised by the educated elite in Peru (who were native speakers of Spanish), the Spanish distinction of /i/ vs. /e/ and /u/ vs. /o/ was artificially forced into Quechua orthography according to how the contextual allophone of /i/ and /u/ sounded to a Spanish ear. Imagine that English orthography had been devised by Quechua speakers; if so, then English consonant /k/ would be spelled differently in the words "key" and "ski", because even though for a native English speaker it is clear that they have the same /k/ sound, to a Quechua speaker's ear they sound totally different (the former is aspirated like Quechua "kh" and the latter is unaspirated like Quechua "k"), so they would insist in spelling the two allophones of English /k/ differently according to what phoneme the sound would correspond to in Quechua, just like Spanish speakers insisted in spelling the two sounds of Quechua /i/ and of Quechua /u/ differently according to what phoneme the sound would correspond to in Spanish. Uaxuctum 22:29, 1 September 2006 (UTC)


 * Thanks for that clarification. I have been learning linguistics in the mean-time and it all makes a lot more sense now. The bellman 04:00, 17 September 2006 (UTC)

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