Talk:Chess Opening Theory/1. e4/1...e5/2. f4/2...exf4

The very beginning moves of the King's gambit state that the king pushes his f-pawn for the sake of getting the chance to play d4; where doe sthat move take place? Here it would be disasterous upon Qh4+. Tomson (talk) 01:19, 30 April 2008 (UTC)
 * Where does it say that? Anyway the move 2. f4 means that d4 becomes unlikely. Would be more likely after 2. Nf3 or c3 which support a possible d4 push and by playing 2. f4 there is pressure on the Kingside first to deal with before d4 can be played. That being said there are some lines in the Kings gambit accepted and also the Falkbeer(3. f4 d5) where d4 can be played. SunCreator (talk) 16:25, 30 April 2008 (UTC)
 * I've found what your referring to the King's Gambit, King's Gambit. White is threatening to play d4 but doesn't get around to it for some time in the main line as there are more important things. Initially after 2. f4 exf4 3. d4 would be a mistake because of 3...Qh4 and so instead white plays 3. Nf3 but unless black plays relatively passively (3...d6 or 3..h6) white doesn't get around to playing d4 for several more moves. Debateably it should not be played anyway as the main line goes 3. Nf3 g5 4. h4 g4 5. Ne5 d6 6. Nxg4 Be7 7. d4 ( 7.d3 is considered a more solid and better try here I believe). SunCreator (talk) 17:14, 30 April 2008 (UTC)