Talk:Biblical Studies/New Testament Commentaries/1 Corinthians/Chapter 14

I want to suggest that this commentary needs to take a more careful look at the Isaiah 28 passage that is quoted by Paul in verse 21. There seems to be more going on here than simply tongues being a something that will confuse unbelievers. The Isaiah passage is about the sound of a foreign language being a sign of judgment on Israel. I am confident it wasn't a random citation. I'm confident Paul wasn't simply proof-texting. Is it possible that the sign of tongues being for unbelievers is intended for Jewish unbelievers? Is there any place in scripture where Paul refers to Gentiles as unbelievers?